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A 27-year-old man presents with painful lesions in both armpits. He has experienced several worsening episodes similar to this one since he was a teenager, and he is becoming increasingly distressed by them. His most recent episode resolved 3 months earlier. On examination, deep-seated inflamed nodules with purulent discharge and thick, rope-like scars are visible in the axillae. Nodules and pitted scarring are also present in the groin and perianal region. Which of the following medications is associated with the development of this patient’s condition? Learn more about this case, take the quiz, and join the conversation on Figure 1.
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